Is Sanskrit really a “Indo-European” language?
Thanks to Dr Kalyananraman-ji for alerting me to this. In this well-argued and researched essay titled, Colonial Constructs about Indian Languages, Shishir Thadani explains why there may be a lot more in common between “Indo-Aryan” and Dravidian” languages than what history texts tell us. Excerpts below:
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Most educated Indians know that most Indian languages are divided into two broad linguistic streams – i.e. the “Indo-European” and the “Dravidian”. Tied in with this linguistic classification is the theory that the North Indian languages came with “Aryan” settlers.
…To this day, influential historians (such as Romila Thapar) and others at the JNU (and several other leading Indian universities) continue to swear by this colonial era model. Critics of this colonial-era formulation are usually dismissed as “amateurs” or “national chauvinists” who are somehow unable to comprehend the supposedly well-established “science” of “modern” linguistics.
But is this classification truly “scientific” or a construct that derives more from purely political considerations as some recent critics have argued?
Hungarian Critics of the “Indo-European” Scheme
For instance, in Hungary, there is a growing body of scholars who are extremely uncomfortable and dissatisfied with the manner in which Hungarian was excluded from the Indo-European framework.
…As some modern linguists have argued, the inclusion or exclusion of a language in a particular family must be based on very precise and consistent criterion that should be backed up computerized statistical analysis. For instance, there are some Indian language scholars who have suggested that a computerized analysis of Sanskrit and Latin lexicons might yield a far more limited overlap than would be rationally implied by the “Indo-European” classification.
In fact, such analysis might reveal a greater overlap between North Indian and South Indian langauages as well as between Adivasi langauges and their neighboring Indic langauges that are presently placed under the “Indo-European” umbrella.
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But to date, advocates of the Indo-European paradigm have strenuously resisted such calls for a fresh and unbiased scientific analysis of their classification methods. Nor have they been open to analyzing their conclusions in the context of geography, archaeology, anthropology, trade ties, cultural exchanges and regional political developments.
Few linguists ascribing to the Indo-European/Dravidian divide have bothered to investigate the extent of commonality between Sanskrit or Tamil or Munda and Hindi or Tibetan and Bengali. The possibilities of overlapping vocabularies or shared words between langauges that are currently placed in different linguistic streams has simply not interested many Western-influenced Indian linguists.
Problems with the “Indo-European” Construct
…Building primitive lexicons that show similar roots for certain common words can hardly be an adequate basis of linguistic classification. Especially if that classification is going to be further used to generate implications about sociological and cultural development. If the commonality between Indian and European langauages extends only to a small pastoral-era oral lexicon, the Indo-European theory of langauges could hardly be called in to justify the “Aryan Invasion” theory let alone infer that the Vedas were written by “Indo-European Aryan” migrants.
In fact, one of the unintended (or even intended) consequences of such linguistic speculation is that there has been a needless intellectual division between North Indians and South Indians, between Adivasis and “non-Adivasis” . Moreover, it has strengthened the now increasingly untenable view that there is no continuity between the Indo-Saraswati Harappan civilization and Vedic civilization, and that India’s languages (both in the oral and written forms) must have been brought to India by more “civilized” outsiders.
India and the Birth of Formal Linguistics
Although there is some disagreement on when Panini lived, few modern linguists would deny him and (his lesser-known) predecessors a place at the very forefront of the science of linguistics.
Amongs the earliest known formal Sanskrit lexicons is the Nighantu (a thesaurus-like lexicon) ascribed to Yaska (7th c BC) whose work attempted to systematize the various lexicons that had been developed to aid in the understanding and intrerpretation of the Vedic texts. These included lexicons of rare or difficult words classified into chapters containing similes, metonyms, and other categories of related words that were used to describe physical things and objects in nature. A separate chapter contained words that related to human physical/physiological and mental/emotional qualities and yet another chapter confined itself to words relating to abstract qualities and concepts. A separate book described homonyms that presented special difficulties in their interpretation or had ambiguous meanings. Yaska’s Nighantu was accompanied by his Nirukta (a treatise on entymology and word-parsing) in which rules for deriving words from roots and affixes are described. Yaska followed Sakatayana (an older grammarian) and described four types of words: nama (or nouns), akhyata (verbs), upsarga (prefixes) and nipata (particles such as prepositions). He defined verbs as those in which the process or action predominated and nouns as that in which an entity or a being or a thing predominated. He was also cognizant of how sometimes verbs taken on a noun-like form – such as “going for a walk” where the verb walk takes on a noun-like form.
Yaska also posited a semantic theory in which he argued that words had inherent meanings in contrast to Panini who argued that words had meanings only in their specific context. This debate appears to mirror the modern-day debate between semantic atomists and cognitive linguistics. Panini’s Ashtadhyayi (Eight Chapters) went deeper into linguistic morphology defining such terms as phonemes, morphemes and roots. He also described rules/algorithms for taking material from lexical lists (dhatupatha) and generating words from them in a structured and systematic manner. Panini’s influence on modern linguistics has been considerable (see notes below).
In this entire body of work stretching, from Sakatayana to Panini, there is virtually nothing to link Sanskrit to any European influence.
On the other hand, both Sanskrit and Tamil are syllabic languages and both treat consonants and vowels very similarly. Just as in Sanskrit where aksharas (speech particles or atoms) are divided into Svarams (vowels) and Vyanajanams (consonants), in Tamil vowels (Uyir Ezhuttu) are clearly distinguished from consonants Mey Ezhuttu.
Alphabets versus Syllables
And although linguists are divided as to which came first, both Sanskrit and Tamil are written in very similar ways. Unlike the European langauges that are written using alphabets (derived from Greek, and branching off from Latin or Cyrillic), all Indian languages are written using syllables made up of (simple or compound) consonant shapes that are modified by the symbols for vowels that connect the consonants. In Sanskrit (and languages derived from it) as well as in South Indian languages like Telugu and Kannada there is a precise and unambiguous correspondence between how words are pronounced and how they are written.
From the point of view of classifying languages based on the organizational principles that govern their written scripts no logic would permit the Sanskrit-derived North Indian langauges to be placed in the same language group as the European languages.
For instance, languages (such as Chinese or Japanese) that use pictograms, logograms and ideograms in their written form are a unique group of languages and are classified as “Semanto-phonetic”. To understand the development of such languages using morphological and entymological constructs as described by Sanskrit linguists such as Yaska or Panini would be absurd.
Yet, Western scholars seem to have no difficulty in clubbing Sanskrit with English and French even though the manner in which Sanskrit developed and was formalized was entirely unknown and alien to the Europeans. On the other hand, structurally speaking (notwithstanding some differences), Sanskrit and Tamil are like sisters, yet many Westerners persist with placing them in entirely different language families.
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Pan-Indic Linguistic Features
Writing in Language in India (9, Jan, 2002), G. Sankaranarayanan observes how repeating words and forms is a significant feature that extends across the Indian subcontinent and includes not only the Sanskrit and Tamil derivatives but also Munda and languages from the Tibetan-Burmese group.
…Thus word repitition is an economic but meaningful way of expressing varied forms of frequency, plurality or multiplicity.
Note too that Indic languages permit the dropping of pronouns (which become implied). In the previous example both the subject (I/we) and object pronouns (him/her/them) may be dropped, but (got tired telling) would be impermissable in English.
Another form of repitition is the use of an echo word to suggest a broader category than the word echoed.
Sentence Word Order
It may also be noted that across India, both Sanskrit and Tamil derived languages use SOV (subject Object Verb) word order as a default. But several Indo-European langauges such as English, French, Portugese and Bulgarian use SVO word order.
However, in colloquial or theatrical speech, (or even in poetic/literary texts) Hindi (like Arabic) also permits VSO. Moreover, when repeated words are used all Indian langauges permit the omission of the subject and the word order becomes flexible – either OV or VO.
Word order also becomes flexible in the context of question and answer exchanges. Thus in Hindi “Gaye the Tum?” (Went did you?), “Tum Gaye The?” (You went did?) and “Tum Gaye?” (You went?) are all possible. Replies to where did you go could be equally varied from the standard SOV “Main Allahabad gaya tha” (I Allahabad went) to an OVS “Allahabad gaya tha main” (Allahabad went I) or simply OV “Allahabad gaya tha” (Allahabad went) or even VO “Gaya tha Allahabad” (Went Allahabad)
In this respect, Indian languages are similar to each other but not to less flexible “Indo-European” languages like English. On the other hand, Russian and Czech (like Hungarian) do not require a fixed or default word order.
In conclusion, it might be stated that the present scheme of bifurcating Indian langauges into the “Indo-European” and “Dravidian” scheme is unsatisfactory in many ways. Not only does it ignore vital commonalities between the langauges of Northern and Southern India, it has also precluded comprehensive comparitive studies between these Indic languages and other Indic langauges such as the Munda or those from the Tibetan-Burmese stream.
…Also obscured is the scientific analysis and rational organization that went into the formalization of Sanskrit (in both spoken and written forms) and other Indic languages that created a solid foundation for India’s largely self-propelled progress in philosophy, epistemology, law and governance, mathematics, art, theatre and music, mathematics, and the biological and physical sciences.
Consciously or unconsciously, the “Indo-European” scheme not only divided India from within but also set it apart from from its intellectually-linked Asian brethren and oceanic neighbors in Africa.
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In case you are tempted to dismiss the author as another misguided “nationalist”, Sh Thadani is an undergrad from the prestigious IIT in Delhi and a Post-Graduate degree in Computer Science from Yale where his area of specialization included Theoretical Computer Science, the Syntax and Semantics of Computer Langauges and Natural Language Processing. He was assisted in his reasearch by Giti Thadani, who is intimately familiar with several European langauges including German, French and Hungarian (as well as Sanskrit).
The article in full here.
Related Posts:
“Defalsify India’s History†by Subramanian Swamy – Excerpts
“The Rigveda and the Avesta: The Final Evidence†– A blurb
Santanu-ji,
Brilliant ! Good spadework indeed. We need to work on a lot of issues such as:
1) Revising AIT
2) Saraswathi Civilization
3) False Language classifications
I believe that time is slowly turning around in our favour.
Let us hope for the best…
KALYAN
Dear Shantanu
Thanks for this. I’m not an expert (not even a novice!) but I do know that there are multiple factors at work in this space which have not yet been unearthed.
DNA studies seem to imply that there were migrations from North Africa over the course of 60,000 years outwards, including to Australia through India. We all perhaps had a common Ethiopian great… great grand mother.
The Head librarian of NEHU (Shillong), a learned man with whom I had a long conversation (I unfortunately forget his name at the moment) when I was in Shillong, showed me reams of his research – there are a number of students at NEHU involved in this research as well – demonstrating the great similarity between names found in Hindu scriptures and words (including gods) found in African languages. Amazing was this analysis, as he ran me through one example after another for nearly an hour. I came back thinking there is perhaps some solid basis for his hypotheses.
In my mind, just like with ongoing DNA analysis, as people go backwards in time, they’ll probably find that most words used today in the entire world have North African roots. Unfortunately we simply don’t have the complete picture of the jigsaw puzzle. Indeed, there is a possibility that the language of other near-humans (Neanderthals comes to mind) might have mixed with modern languages as well (I don’t know if Neanderthals had vocal chords that could make sounds like ours).
That the so-called Dravidian languages are a slightly earlier stream than Sanskrit seems plausible on the surface given the earlier migrations to Australia through South India (Aborigines, I gather, are very similar genetically to South Indians). It would be worthwhile comparing Dravidian languages with Australian aborigine languages for possible similarities. I’m sure that must have already been done by someone.
Re: languages, the transmission mechanism is economic and political success. The rate of transmission of language is far greater than human miscegenation. As a rule, the language of the political ‘winners’ becomes dominant for a while. Over thousands of years, this would have meant that first one, then another, language dominated and imposed on the other; ultimately mixing to such a large extent that tracing out the specific origin of languages is virtually impossible (unlike DNA).
Note that languages also mutate very rapidly. Observe the huge variation in Hindi dialects across North India. In other words, tracing out the roots of language is fraught – a puzzle on which the jury is still out and will perhaps remain so for another hundred or two hundred years. We do know that there are hundreds if not thousands of common root words in Sanskrit and European languages. That cannot be denied; but explaining how it arose is no easy task.
Regards
Sanjeev
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Pl. stick to the topic…and pl. post comments on relevant threads only.
Pl. do not post entire articles – Use links where possible.
Finally, please read: A Reminder on Comments Policy
@ Kalyan-ji: Thank you for your kind words…but the readl credit must go to Sh. Shishir Thadani who did the research and is the author of the article from which I have reproduced excerpts.
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@ Sanjeev: I agree…We do not have the complete picture yet…and it may take a while for the whole thing to unravel
You are right to some extent. But the problem is due to the Western colonial mind that continues to think that something that is so great like the Vedas could not have been written in a language that is indigenous to India. There may be nothing wrong with having the phrase ‘Indo-European’ languages because it is said that Sanskrit and the old European language Latin from which many European languages are derived are similar. But to suggest that Sanskrit came to India from outside would be grossly wrong. Sanskrit and its predecessor may have been from India from where it may have traveled to Iran and to Europe influencing their indigenous languages.
As you said there are lot of similarities between Tamil and Sanskrit. Scholars say the Sanskrit borrowed much of its structure and some words from Tamil and Tamil borrowed little structural rules and many words from Sanskrit. But still they are separate families of languages. ‘Dravidian’ is an artificial construct used by Caldwell. The word Dravidian is not original to any so called Dravidian languages. It is from Sanskrit and its derivative languages. Tamizh was pronounced as Damila and then as Dravida. It is a commonly accepted thing that southern languages are derived from Tamil and northern languages are derived from Sanskrit.
This article is moronic!
1) Alphabets are irrelevant to linguistic classification (the Hittite alphabet is also syllabic, but what, are you going to claim Hittite is Turkic??? Is Tocharian Chinese?)
2) Sanskrit is IE not because of racist colonialism but because its noun and verb morphology is almost equivalent. This is clearly not the case with Tamil. A far higher proportion of vocabulary is also very clearly IE. (Do you need examples?)
3) Religious or philosophical traditions are irrelevant to linguistic reconstruction, as these are cultural issues. Race is irrelevant, as nobody would dispute that a Romanian and a Hungarian or a Swede and a Finn are more genetically similar than any of these with an Indian. However, there are clearly even cognate phrases in Vedic hymns with accounts of Greek and other IE rituals.
4) Most Indo-Europeanists are not right-wing racists. In fact, the average Indophile tends to wish to adopt the Indian culture and leave his own behind. But this does not mean he also rejects this obvious shared linguistic genealogy!
5) Indo-European is historically SOV!!!! This is clear from the earlier Greek, Latin, Slavic, and even Germanic texts, and quite regularised in Hittite. SVO is a modern European development.
6) I don’t care if the author has been to Yale. US universities are full of racist Indian grad students who don’t talk to white people if they can avoid it. Some of them just want our money and jobs but don’t respect our culture (as if computer science were a cultural degree that gave you the right to speak on linguistic matters). Maybe you should learn other languages before making a fool of yourself by attempting idiotic linguistic classifications based on word order (of which there are six total possibilities, of which two hardly occur in the world) or alphabets.
7) Most Indo-Europeanists see India as a major contributor to world philosophy and the most conservative remnant of IE thought and practice in many respects. I would think Indians would be proud of that, not see it oddly as some colonialist conspiracy to steal your culture. Neither you nor Greece nor Rome is the one cradle of civilisation. So come to terms with reality!
@Thomas: I am not an expert on linguistics nor an expert on history. I will therefore limit my response to points I understand a littl eb it about…
Re. “Religious or philosophical traditions are irrelevant to linguistic reconstruction, as these are cultural issues.” I am currently readinga book by Dr Prodosh Aich, “Lies on Long Legs”(very thoroughly researched) which amongst other things, makes the point that languages cannot be learned/studied in isolation of their cultural/historical and social context. I tend to agree. You are free to hold an opposing view.
Re. “Indo-European is historically SOV!!!!”, excuse my ignorance, but what is SOV?
As for “Maybe you should learn other languages before making a fool of yourself by attempting idiotic linguistic classifications”, what makes you think that the author (or me) do not speak/know any languages other than our mother tongue?
Finallly, re “Most Indo-Europeanists see India as a major contributor to world philosophy and the most conservative remnant of IE thought…”, my objection here is to the use of the phrase Indo-European. From what I have read so far, this is a contentious assertion. If there was no European connection, the civilisation/thoughts etc should simply be called Indian, not Indo-European (where is the European in Vedas, Sanskrit etc)? And if you are tempted to jump in to the Aryan-Dravidian controversy, this is the link to an on-going discussion: https://satyameva-jayate.org/2005/10/08/revising-the-aryan-invasion-of-india-theory/
As for “This article is moronic!“, well, thats a nice way to shut a debate. To each, his own.
@Thomas, a slight correction in the “word order”. It should read:
US universities are full of Indian grad students who don’t talk to racist white people if they can avoid it.
In general, no reasonable person of any color wants to talk to a racist person of any color if they can avoid it.
I’m a proud American citizen and I know that most of us can’t speak or understand much beyond whatever English they teach in our broken school system. Let’s not even go there.
Pray enlighten me as to what culture you were referring to. Up until about 500 years ago ours was the culture of the proud natives. Or are you talking about the most recent 500 years (including 300 years of slavery) after Columbus started a wholesale massacre of the natives to kick-start some new ‘culture’?
As far as jobs and money, people of Indian origin in the US have created far more jobs for us in the US than what they have taken. this is a fact. Our sense of entitlement has risen to new levels!
So stop whining, stick to the point and get on with the debate in a civil manner if you actually have a serious counter-point to make.
@Shantanu
Thomas is saying- “Sanskrit is IE not because of racist colonialism but because its noun and verb morphology is almost equivalent. This is clearly not the case with Tamil.”
I think Shrikant Talageri has decisively disproved this point in his work.
This is all Indic, no European!
is it really right to deduce history though Linguistics? This itself is debatable. This is like sitting in an ivory tower and waiving placards bearing the words – “Do not touch me!”.
http://www.bradshawfoundation.com/journey/
Please see this map.
Stephen Oppienheimers work on genetics says this.
(reference : Stephen Oppenheimer, The Real Eve, op. cit., p. 152)
“For me and for Toomas Kivisild, South Asia is logically the ultimate origin of M17 and his ancestors; and sure enough we find the highest rates and greatest diversity of the M17 line in Pakistan, India, and eastern Iran, and low rates in the Caucasus. M17 is not only more diverse in South Asia than in Central Asia, but diversity characterizes its presence in isolated tribal groups in the south, thus undermining any theory of M17 as a marker of a ‘male Aryan invasion’ of India. One average estimate for the origin of this line in India is as much as 51,000 years. All this suggests that M17 could have found his way initially from India or Pakistan, through Kashmir, then via Central Asia and Russia, before finally coming into Europe.â€
This conclusion above has very profound relevance. This is the first time a a solid scientific evidence based on genetics has been presented.
Now let us look at an article by Prof Arvind Sharma in Journal American Academy of religion , Sept 2005, page 843-870. Vol 73 , No 3.
The article title is ” BR Ambedkar on the Aryan Invasion and emergence oof caste system in India” In this article the author says that India was invaded by the Aryans in 1500 BCE. In this article the author Prof Sharma dicusses in detail of Dr BR Ambedkar opposed this Aryan invasion theory tooth and nail. I would like to quote one para which is very interesting which was said by the visionary BRA in 1946.
” The Aryan theory is so absurd that it ought to be buried long ago. But far being dead it has considerable hold on the people. There are 2 explanations which accopunt for this pehenomena. The first is that it recd support from Brahmin scholars. This is a strange phenomena. as Hindus , they should show dislike towards Aryan theory with its expressed avowal of the superiority of the European races over Asiatic races.The Brahmin scholar has no such aversion, but most willingly hails it. The reasons are obvious. The Brahmin believes in the two nnation theory. He claims to be a descendant of Aryan race and the rrest of Hindus as descendants of non-Aryan race. This theory helps him to establish kinship with the European races and share their arrogance and superiority……”
I will stop here on BRA. This article in 1946 , must have infuriarted the upper castes , who put down his famous bill for introducing Sankrit in the national curriculum. I would like to digress a bit. Once during a visit to a Hare Krishna temple in UK , I was talking to sanyasi about Hinduism. He immediately quoted his Guru ” Srila Parbhupada that the Brahmins were the targets of colonialists as they held the preistly duties. So BRA was right about Brahmins, but his tone was one of anger. One feels , how guillible people were to colonialists. One man the great BRA stood his ground and refuted this theory tooth and nail.
Now 1500 yrs BCE invasion by eminent historians and the 51, 000 yrs of human existence in India by Stepehen Oppeinheimers work , proves that BRA was right. Yes, 51000 yrs, both Tamil and Sanskrit must have evolved in India. One question I always ask is, do the linguists who work in these areas, can they speak , write and converse Tamil as frequently as a Tamilian does in TN in India. OR is there any person who can read , write and speak Sanskrit like in Muttoor in India. Both these languages are spoken, written in India , Sanskrit to a minimal level. Nowhere in Europe there is fluent Sanskrit being spoken like in India. There may be some Sanskrit words in European languages , but it is the humans with M17 who have carried the words also, which has residual effect on the European languages.
I always feel that Dr BR Ambedkar was great analytical thinker. He may have had his grouse against upper castes, which is justifiable. Even though he was educated in Columbia Univ. USA and in Germany , he did not succumb to colonial theories like many of the leading lights in the Congress party. His approach as Prof Arvind Sharma puts it was to make Indians very egalatarian, which is exemplified by his efforts to bring Sanskrit in mainstream for upward and downward mobility.
Shanatanu, I can request someone to post by email or some method the entire article by Prof Sharma of McGill Univ on Dr BRA. It is a must read. An excellent article with a neutral , unbiased stand.
@Gajanan: Is this the one? http://jaar.oxfordjournals.org/content/73/3/843.abstract
Just googled it..have not read it yet.
Yes , thats the one. The abstract which you have posted may not reveal much, but the article is very good. Do you have access to the full article?
Shantanu, do you need Prof Sharmas article ( full). One of my friend has it has full pdf . I can email it to you or make arrangements for you to get it it to you.
Placing this excerpt here for the record..
From http://www.huffingtonpost.com/suhag-a-shukla-esq/vedic-content-intonation-_b_877606.html
“Peeling Back the Layers of Sanskrit and Vedic Chanting”
…Sanskrit words are often translated rather simplistically (or mistranslated), especially by many Western scholars of religion or linguistics who have gained only a cursory knowledge of Sanskrit. But each word in the Sanskrit lexicon, Dr. Joshi explained, has a much subtler, almost poetic meaning — an understanding that can only emerge from full immersion in the language. He gave us the example of a basic word, shakha. Shakha is commonly translated as “branch,” like a branch of literature or a physical branch of a larger organization. But delve deeper into the word, he explained, and one will find that shakha is the derivative of several roots — kh means “sky,” khe to kha then is “in the sky.” Sh or shete means “that which lies down or flat across.” Shakha is therefore, “that which lies flat across the sky.” In this breakdown exercise of just one word, not only did our respect for Sanskrit grow another tenfold, but we gained a possible reason, aside from malintent and Freudian lenses, as to why we see so many translations of Hindu scripture from “experts” in unions like the American Academy of Religions that are completely divorced from their emic understandings.
The true gem of the evening, though, was learning about Jatapatha. Jatapatha is a complex combination of the individual words of mantras from the Vedas. The Vedas, Hindus believe, contain eternal truths received or heard by the ancient rishis (seers) through Divine revelation and after years of meditation and contemplation. There are four Vedas, the Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva. These four tomes, in turn, consist of four sections, namely Samhitas (mantras or hymns), Brahmanas (methodology of ritual), the Aryanakas (special rituals) and the Upanishads (philosophy).
Totaling 100,000+ verses, the Vedas, for thousands of years, have been transmitted orally from one generation to the next. In that vein, one could argue that the Vedas that we hear today, may not be the same as the original. But such an argument is moot because the ancient rishis foresaw this very potential of alteration, said Dr. Joshi, and came up with a built-in mechanism to prevent exactly that. And the way in which they did so can be described only as sheer mathematical ingenuity. To ensure that the Vedas remained unchanged in content, intonation, and inflection, a number of techniques of recitation with increasing complexity and difficulty were developed, including Jatapata.
The first is Samhita, the simplest form of recitation that approaches the mantra as it is, for example,”the sky is blue” (abcd). Next is Padha, where each word is broken down, as in, “the/sky/is/blue” (a/b/c/d). Krama, the third technique, adds the first real level of difficulty into the recitation through a pattern of “the sky/sky is/is blue” (ab/bc/cd). Jatapatha, the first of the more challenging, alternates between a repetitious interposing and transposing of words to create a pattern of “the sky sky the the sky/sky is is sky sky is/is blue blue is is blue” (abbaab/bccbbc/cddccd). Between Jatapata and the last technique are six other techniques (called Mala, Shikha, Rekha, Dvaja, Danda and Ratha) that again are built-in combinations and permutations that have ensured that the order and words of the Vedas remain unchanged. The ultimate and most complex technique is called Ghanam. Its mind-boggling backwards and forwards pattern is, “the sky sky the the sky is is sky the the sky is/sky is is sky sky is blue blue is sky is blue” (abbaabccbaabc/bccbbcddcbbcd).
Thanks for posting this article. I always thought that the Indo-European theory was overly broad because almost half the world’s people speak a language from this supposed “family” while the other language families are much smaller. I’m glad that someone else finds a problem with the Indo-European theory like me.
Placing this comment here by here by N Kazanas for the record:
I have read the piece “Setting the record straight”. The title is misleading for it sets the record crooked!
By and large the article expresses many truths well known to all. In fact, at the start one wonders why it was written at all. However, in the last paragraphs one sees that the apparent humdrum objectivity masked the purpose to promote a specific political/religious viewpoint and/or perpetuate the long moribund myth of the Aryan Invasion, now termed “immigration”;. For here we see an open attack on those who seek to establish a correct view of Indian Protohistory.
“Linguists know, based on reams of research, that a form of PIE, the*
language*, did arrive in India from elsewhere becoming Sanskrit over time” the writer avers and emphasises the fact that it was the language and* not people *that arrived. With admirable insouciance he does not bother to tell us how these reams of research explain the arrival of an entire (highly complex) language without people who spoke it (perhaps like pollen on winds?), the date of 1700 BCE, the sanskritisation of that huge area(Land of the Seven Rivers) in N-W India and Pakistan of today, the settlement in a terrain that was desiccated while the native Harappans were moving or had moved eastward – and other similar mysteries.
Now, undoubtedly there are some, perhaps many, writers, Indian and others, who claim that Sanskrit is utterly pure and perfect, that all languages derive from it, that the Vedas are millions of years old and other similar notions. Such claims are no more non-sensical or unsupportable than the one the writer puts forth as proven and established fact.
Despite the broad sweeps through history and the multifarious references to many languages, our writer remains at a very superficial
level of scholarship parroting second- and third-hand opinions from the mainstream murky morass. There is no “ironclad scholarship in Indo-European linguistics”: it has cracks and gushes everywhere as the scholars disagree about most aspects – some of which are flagrantly false.
For details see N.
Kazanas 2009 *Indoaryan Origins and other Vedic Issues*, Aditya Prakashan; also *Collapse of the AIT and prevalence of Indigenism* in
http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/en/default_en.asp . Here I can only mention a few aspects in brief. Eg that PIE has been “reconstructed”, when nobody knows that this reconstruction is the PIE(!); that linguistic change was regular or uniform even in the selfsame linguistic environment, when IE languages changed manifestly in very different ways; that there were several laryngeals, when only Hittite had sounds so described; that Hittite is the oldest branch and closest to the PIE, when it does not have the IE words for the eight closest of human relationships (brother, daughter, father, husband, mother etc), all present in Sanskrit and Avestan (Old Persian) and partly present in all the other branches; that Avestan is older than Sanskrit; that the isoglosses indicate as the IE homeland the southern Russian Steppe; and so on: all these are untrue! Yes, there is a large body of mainstream scholars holding passionately these notions, just as there was an immoveable conviction in all scholars up until the end of the 16th cent that the earth was at the centre of the solar system or just as today many die-hard leftists continue to claim that communism – despite its abysmal failure everywhere – will save the world.
The issue at stake is the alleged entry of Sanskrit (or Old Indoaryan)
c. 1700 BCE. Not only dispassionate linguistic, literary and archaeological studies, but also all genetic researches since 2003, show clearly that there has been no significant entry of non-indigenous people into that area after 10000 and before 600 BCE – at least not large enough to leave its mark on the indigenous culture or on the DNA of the native people.
Again see for more details http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/en/default_en.asp .
Ιf more is needed, let me know. N. Kazanas.
Yes Mr. Thomas some examples would have been nice to help readers here understand what you’re trying to say. I can’t just google random phrases you have strung together to sound like as if they are common knowledge or proven facts.
What exactly is verb and noun morphology? How are verbs and nouns equivalent in Sanskrit and English? Can you provide some examples? The word ‘come’ is a verb. The equivalent in Sanskrit is Agachcha and Vaa in Tamil. What kind of similarities are you talking about here that make Sanskrit IE???
And what proportion of Sanskrit is IE? That’s a really vague statement.
So yes, please provide some examples or better yet provide links to some articles that might explain this “morphology” you speak of.